Certification Provider:Â Cisco
Exam: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Exam Code: CCNA 200-301
Total Question: 116
Question per Quiz: 105
Updated On: 19 Feb 2023
Note: In order to practice all the Q/A's, you have to practice multiple time. Question's and Answer's will be presented randomly and will help you get hands-on for real exam.
1.
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
2.
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building.
✑ Floor 1 has 24 users.
✑ Floor 2 has 29 users.
✑ Floor 3 has 28 users.
Floor 4 has 22 users.
3.
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
4.
Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
5.
What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
6.
You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
7.
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)
8.
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?
10.
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multi-factor authentication?
11.
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)
12.
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
13.
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
14.
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
15.
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface Fast Ethernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
16.
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
17.
Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
18.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
19.
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
20.
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
21.
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
22.
Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
23.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
24.
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
25.
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
26.
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
27.
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
28.
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
29.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
30.
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?
31.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
32.
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
33.
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
34.
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. What is the reason for the problem?
35.
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
36.
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
37.
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
38.
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
39.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task? A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
40.
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
41.
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
42.
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
43.
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
44.
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
45.
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)
46.
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)
47.
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
48.
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
49.
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
50.
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
51.
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
52.
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
53.
Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
54.
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
55.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
56.
Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
57.
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
58.
A customer has an application that is being identified as unknown-tcp for one of their custom PostgreSQL database connections. Which two configuration options can be used to correctly categorize their custom database application? (Choose two.)
59.
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
60.
Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
61.
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
62.
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
63.
You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network - one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?
64.
Which option about JSON is true?
65.
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
66.
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
67.
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
68.
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
69.
Which output displays a JSON data representation?
70.
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
71.
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
72.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
73.
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
74.
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two.)
75.
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPvô prefix and MAC address of an interface?
76.
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
77.
Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
78.
Which technology prevents client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
79.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?
80.
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
81.
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
82.
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
83.
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
84.
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
85.
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
86.
Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
87.
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
88.
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
89.
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
90.
Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?
91.
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
92.
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
93.
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
94.
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)
95.
Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for Internet traffic?
96.
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
97.
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
98.
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
99.
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
100.
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
101.
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
102.
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
103.
Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
104.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
105.
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
