Certification Provider: Cisco
Exam: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Exam Code: CCNA 200-301
Total Question: 116
Question per Quiz: 105
Updated On: 19 Feb 2023
Note: In order to practice all the Q/A's, you have to practice multiple time. Question's and Answer's will be presented randomly and will help you get hands-on for real exam.
1.
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
2.
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
3.
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
4.
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)
5.
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for Internet traffic?
8.
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
9.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
10.
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two.)
11.
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
12.
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
13.
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface Fast Ethernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
14.
Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
15.
Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
16.
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
17.
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
18.
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
19.
Which technology prevents client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
20.
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
21.
Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
22.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
23.
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
24.
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
25.
Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
26.
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
27.
Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
28.
Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration started to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)
29.
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
30.
You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network - one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?
31.
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
32.
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
33.
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)
34.
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
35.
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
36.
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
37.
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
38.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?
39.
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)
40.
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
41.
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
42.
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
43.
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
44.
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
45.
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPvô prefix and MAC address of an interface?
46.
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
47.
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
48.
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
49.
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
50.
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
51.
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)
52.
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
53.
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
54.
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)
55.
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
56.
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
57.
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?
58.
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
59.
Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
60.
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
61.
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
62.
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
63.
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
64.
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
65.
A customer has an application that is being identified as unknown-tcp for one of their custom PostgreSQL database connections. Which two configuration options can be used to correctly categorize their custom database application? (Choose two.)
66.
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
67.
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
68.
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
69.
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
70.
What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
71.
Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
72.
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building.
✑ Floor 1 has 24 users.
✑ Floor 2 has 29 users.
✑ Floor 3 has 28 users.
Floor 4 has 22 users.
73.
Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?
74.
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
75.
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement?
76.
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
77.
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
78.
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
79.
Which option about JSON is true?
80.
Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
81.
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
82.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task? A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
83.
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. What is the reason for the problem?
84.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
85.
Which output displays a JSON data representation?
86.
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
87.
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
88.
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
89.
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
90.
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
91.
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
92.
You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
93.
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
94.
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?
95.
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
96.
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
97.
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)
98.
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
99.
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
100.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
101.
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
102.
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
103.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
104.
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
105.
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
